At that time Jesus came from Nazareth in Galilee and was baptized by John in the Jordan. As Jesus was coming up out of the water, he saw heaven being torn open and the Spirit descending on Him like a dove. And a Voice came from heaven: “You are my Son, Whom I love; with You I AM well pleased.”—Mark 1:9-11
When all the people were being baptized, Jesus was baptized too. And as He was praying, heaven was opened and the Holy Spirit descended on Him in bodily form like a dove. And a voice came from heaven: “You are my Son, Whom I love; with You I AM well pleased.”—Luke 3:21-22
The scriptures above are the only gospel references to the baptism of Jesus performed by John the Baptist. In John’s gospel, John (not John the Baptist, but John the Apostle and Disciple of Jesus) writes of the aftermath of Jesus’s baptism, but he never even mentions the baptismal event. I find such things fascinating, don’t you?
John (as in John the Baptist and cousin of Jesus) preached (and practiced) a baptism of repentance and purification, which was, I believe, consistent with the purification rites required by the Laws of Moses. Johnny Bee’s overarching mission (and I hope I’m not being disrespectful in referring to him in that way) was to be “A voice of one calling in the desert, ‘Prepare the way for the Lord, make straight paths for Him (see Matthew 3:3 [which directly quotes Isaiah 40:3]).’”
So…given that John preached a baptism of repentance and purification, why did Jesus submit to such a baptism?
In the words of a great evangelist of which I know of (I borrowed that quote from Pooh Bear)…
I DO NOT KNOW…
…why Jesus felt the “need” to submit to John’s baptism. It is, I feel, beyond me. For the scriptures themselves teach very clearly that “in Him (that is, Jesus) there is no sin (see 1 John 3:5).” Given John the Baptist’s reaction (“I need to be baptized by You, and do You come to me? [see vs. 14 above]”), it is apparent that John, too, felt a certain befuddlement over what His cousin, Jesus, was requesting of Him.
So, again, given that Jesus was without sin and, clearly, DID NOT need to repent of or be purified from sin, I ask: Why did He undergo John’s baptism? Again, and quite honestly, I have to write that I really don’t know. But, as a lover and follower of Jesus, I feel compelled to not just let things lay there, you know? So, with that said (or written!), let’s take a closer look at the text…
Then Jesus came from Galilee to the Jordan to be baptized by John. But John tried to deter him, saying, “I need to be baptized by you, and do you come to me?” Jesus replied, “Let it be so now; it is proper for us to do this to fulfill all righteousness (see Matthew 3:13-15).”
It is proper for us to do this to fulfill all righteousness?
What did Jesus mean by that?!?
In order to delve adequately into the meanings behind Jesus's Words, I'd like to begin by engaging in a little word study by comparing how things were written in other translations and versions of the Bible and then look, also, at the New Testament Greek, which was the original language in which the New Testament was written. The verse I'd like to focus on is the one I just wrote above (vs. 15), and, more specifically, I’d like to focus on three words within that verse.
It is proper for us to do this to fulfill all righteousness.
Proper…
The word “proper,” as it is used in this verse, is translated in other versions and translations of the Bible as follows:
“Proper” in the New International Version and the New Revised Standard Version;
"Necessary” in the Common English Bible;
"Becometh” in the King James Version, the Darby Translation, the Wycliffe New Testament, and the Rheims New Testament;
"Becoming” in Young's Literal Translation;
"Fitting” in the Amplified Bible, the New American Standard Bible, and the New American Bible;
"How it should be” in the Contemporary English Version; and
"God’s work” in The Message.
In the Greek New Testament, the word translated “proper” is the Greek word, “ASTEIOS,” which can be translated also as “goodly” or “beautiful” (see Vine’s Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, by Vine, W. E., MacDonald Publishing Company, Publication Date Unk, Pg. 903).
To fulfill…
The words “to fulfill,” as they are used in this verse, are translated in other versions and translations of the Bible as follows:
“To fulfill” in the New International Version, the Common English Bible, the American Standard Version, the Amplified Bible (along with “perform completely”), the Rheims New Testament, the New American Standard Bible, the New American Bible, the King James Version, the New Revised Standard Version, and the Darby Translation; and
“Because we must do” in the Contemporary English Version.
In the Greek New Testament, the word translated “to fulfill” is the Greek word, “PLEROO,” which can be translated “to fill,” “to fulfill, complete,” “to make full, to fill to the full,” “to fill (as in to fill a net or a building),” “to fill (as in to fill with Joy or with the Holy Spirit),” “to fill (as in to fill a valley),” and “to accomplish, finish” (see Vine’s, Pp. 436 and 475).
Righteousness…
The word “righteousness,” as it is used in this verse, is translated in other versions and translations of the Bible as follows:
“Righteousness” in the New International Version, the Amplified Bible (along with “whatever is right”), the King James Version, the New American Standard Bible, the New American Bible, the New Revised Standard Version, the Common English Bible, and the Darby Translation;
"Justice” in the Rheims New Testament;
“[What] God wants” in the Contemporary English Version; and
“[To put things] “right” in The Message.
In the Greek New Testament, the word translated “righteousness” is the Greek word, “DIKAIOSUNE,” which can be translated as the character or quality of being “right” or “just.” In more distant history, it was, apparently, translated “rightwiseness,” which is a pretty cool word, I think. This word, DIKAIOSUNE, denotes an attribute of God that is, essentially, the same as His faithfulness or truthfulness. It is a word intended to demonstrate any conduct or attitude that is consistent with the character of God, and it is intended to demonstrate, also, that God is most definitely NOT indifferent toward sin. On the contrary, the “rightwiseness” of God demonstrates the quality of holiness in Him which finds expression in not just His abject condemnation of sin but in His desire to eradicate sin as well as its effects and affects. It should be noted, too, that “righteousness” is a gift of God imbued to men for the purposes of showing forth His grace and glory to all creation. (See Vine’s, Pg. 980.)
Okay…so there you go.
What I’m going to do, now, is call it a night and just let these things sit and marinate within me for a while. With each passing day, I am becoming more and more convinced of just how important it is to, with anything, just let “the dots” drop on the table and then sit with them for a while before trying to make connections or draw conclusions. So, with that written, that’s EXACTLY what I’m going to do. Will answers come in future posts? As Robert Fulghum might write, “Maybe, maybe not.” In fact, I’m leaning toward the “Maybe NOT” side of the equation. Sometimes (and I’m just being honest here), it’s the questions that seem to thrill me more than any particular discovery. Yes, discoveries will be made (and they will be thrilling), but how cool is it, upon making any discovery, to discover, too, just how much there is yet to uncover? Ah yes...living of the life of one who wishes with all his heart to mine the depths of the Mysterious Unknown, Who is our God and Father. Thoughts of such things bring a tear to my eye and a smile to my face—ALL at the same time!!
Alas…it has become time for me to hit the weights and go for a little run.
Peace out to all’y’all!!
Your friend and brother,
Bling
PS...To my dear friend, whom I wrote to earlier: The passing of the last two hours has, in deed, felt like a mere five minutes. And, yes, I am happy—of this I am quite certain!! Peace...
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The Baptism of Jesus, from Jesus of Nazareth
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=SgpGidtTV2I
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